Is Shakespeare a misogynist? I do not think Shakespeare is a misogynist because I think he wanted to show the effects of women as a result of men’s corruption for power. Gertrude and Ophelia show the extent of their loyalties to their men by providing information or giving up their life. As much as this could be described as dependence, it is expected because of women’s role during the time period. In Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet, Juliet is stubborn, loyal, and a victim of not only her love, but also the families ongoing feuding.