To be or not to be…..a misogynist

Is Shakespeare a misogynist? I do not think Shakespeare is a misogynist because I think he wanted to show the effects of women as a result of men’s corruption for power. Gertrude and Ophelia show the extent of their loyalties to their men by providing information or giving up their life. As much as this could be described as dependence, it is expected because of women’s role during the time period. In Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet, Juliet is stubborn, loyal, and a victim of not only her love, but also the families ongoing feuding.

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3 thoughts on “To be or not to be…..a misogynist

  1. Good connection between Romeo and Juliet , I do feel that Shakespeare is conforming to the attitudes towards women at that time. But this post would have been made better if there were more textual evidence presented

  2. I agree with you that Shakespeare was not a misogynist. I feel if he was living in the 21st century he would be viewed as a misogynist however he obviously isn’t in this generation. For the time period he lived in, the way he portrayed women would have been fairly accurate or slightly revolutionary because the women have quite a bit of a voice. I really liked the point about women being a result of men’s corruption that was nice! Good job girlie!

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